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Stealing Land - Statute of Limitations


TahoeHorn

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What is the statute of limitations on stealing land?

 

Throughout history some group has taken land from another group.  If we can identify 47 groups which have had the land, and we know there are probably more,which one is the rightful owner?  Is there some date where if you owned it on that date it's yours, even if some group owned it before then?

Who owns the West Bank?  Israelis or Palestinians?  What about Texas?  What about Jerusalem?  What about the Alsace-Lorraine?  Or Latvia?  Or Poland?  Or England?  What about Massachusetts?

 

I'll say 65 years.  If you "stole" it over 65 years ago it's yours.  Less than that it's not.  So the Saxons can't claim England.  The Huns can't claim Germany.  But the Palestinians can claim the West Bank.

 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_territorial_disputes

Edited by TahoeHorn
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I so thought this thread was going to be about the Oklahoma territories.  I am disappointed.

For a [serious] answer, there is a huge (yuge even) distinction between land where ownership dispute is handled within a country (by that's country's laws) and land contested between countries (where war usually settles the matter).

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Right.  I don't think international border and territorial disputes are settled by adverse possession rules.

6 minutes ago, bernorange said:

I so thought this thread was going to be about the Oklahoma territories.  I am disappointed.

For a [serious] answer, there is a huge (yuge even) distinction between land where ownership dispute is handled within a country (by that's country's laws) and land contested between countries (where war usually settles the matter).

 

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7 hours ago, TahoeHorn said:

What is the statute of limitations on stealing land?

 

Throughout history some group has taken land from another group.  If we can identify 47 groups which have had the land, and we know there are probably more,which one is the rightful owner?  Is there some date where if you owned it on that date it's yours, even if some group owned it before then?

Who owns the West Bank?  Israelis or Palestinians?  What about Texas?  What about Jerusalem?  What about the Alsace-Lorraine?  Or Latvia?  Or Poland?  Or England?  What about Massachusetts?

 

I'll say 65 years.  If you "stole" it over 65 years ago it's yours.  Less than that it's not.  So the Saxons can't claim England.  The Huns can't claim Germany.  But the Palestinians can claim the West Bank.

 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_territorial_disputes

Its more about how the people on the land self identify. There are no Saxons in England or Huns in Germany. There are still loads of Palestinians in the West Bank. Its always gonna go back into majority hands if the conquered people remain a majority.  You can kill them all like the US did to Native Americans, or fuck them and merge your identity with theirs like Latin America did, or you can eventually get expelled like England in India or what is happening in South Africa now. Time doesn't matter much unless natural mixing is going on like in Latin America. 

 

I suppose that if both Israel and Palestine became more irreligious, they could unite, but that won't happen in any of our grandkids lifetimes. 

 

When you look at politically displaced landowners like Cuban exiles, theyre never getting land back. Even when Cuba reforms, 0 land is going back to who owned it before the revolution. 

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1 hour ago, FondrenRoad said:

You can kill them all like the US did to Native Americans, or fuck them and merge your identity with theirs like Latin America did, or you can eventually get expelled like England in India or what is happening in South Africa now. Time doesn't matter much unless natural mixing is going on like in Latin America. 

 

The Spanish left a mixture of people all over the world with their colonies but the Brittish did not. Did they not procreate with the natives on a large scale like the Spanish?

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13 minutes ago, F250 said:

The Spanish left a mixture of people all over the world with their colonies but the Brittish did not. Did they not procreate with the natives on a large scale like the Spanish?

I think the primary difference is that the English brought their women and families with them, and the Spanish primarily sent men to plunder natural resources. They did mix some in India, but not as much as you would expect.   The New World had a lot of puritan type settlers, but India had a lot of family-less soldiers who were doing what all single men in a foreign land would do.  

Edited by FondrenRoad
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