Here is the part of this that I get lost on.
If the statute of limitations is up without a triggering crime to escalate to a felony, that would mean that that crime must precede the first violation of fraudulent records. But if that is true, wouldn't this mean that the preceding crime that is the trigger would also be subject to a similar time frame? If there is no charged preceding crime (either through lack of a statute to fit the crime, lack of jurisdiction, outside of statute of limitations already etc) then there is no felony escalator. No felony escalator means it is a misdemeanor, which then the charges would be outside of the misdemeanor statute of limitations and it all is moot. This makes little sense to me logically in the grand scheme of things because with no other charged crime in this, how does this carousel ever get started.
So now you must question the preceding crime and what is the statute of limitations is it under. Without it, everything falls apart.